How do you come to this conclusion “Markets continue to price stagflationary nominal growth and tightening liquidity” when your graphs show +G+I at 57%? And stagflation -G+I at 0%?
Little caveat on spending, savings have reached historical highs and households have enough savings to survive higher inflation. Also can you link your publication on the L(-) regime.
How do you come to this conclusion “Markets continue to price stagflationary nominal growth and tightening liquidity” when your graphs show +G+I at 57%? And stagflation -G+I at 0%?
Little caveat on spending, savings have reached historical highs and households have enough savings to survive higher inflation. Also can you link your publication on the L(-) regime.